Originally Posted by

**Speakpigeon**
Still, the strange thing, then, is how come they don't understand something which is 2,500 years old?

EB

You, for example, do not understand Aristotelian logic. Is that strange?

For example, you believe that Aristotelian logic has valid arguments that are not valid under the definition of validity that says

"A deductive argument is said to be valid if and only if it takes a form that makes it impossible for the premises to be true and the conclusion nevertheless to be false.".

Obviously, that would make Aristotelian logic disastrously flawed, as it would not be truth preserving, as I repeatedly proved in

this thread.