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Thread: The dumb questions thread

  1. Top | #791
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    Quote Originally Posted by fromderinside View Post
    Quote Originally Posted by fast View Post
    Is affordability a necessary condition of accessibility?

    If there’s one twenty feet away and out in the open where you can readily push a button and get a drink only if you had the 35 cents to put in the slot, then there’s this part of me that wants to say that you access; however, that assumes access is independent of being able to afford it.
    Get real. You haven't been near a drink machine in at least 25 years. Thirty five cents indeed. First people don't carry money any more especially coins. Second anyone who claims to be without a debit card is lying. Third noone drinks sodas any more. Fourth what has any of this got to do with A, B, or C?

    RU just providing an example to support

    If “zog,” “wog,” and “boz” are meaningless words, then the sentence fails to express a proposition; the sentence is neither true nor false—thus the sentence is both not true and not false. There is no proposition (at all) and no statement to be either true or false.
    ?

    If so its a fail since what you wrote was true 25 years ago.
    It was the 35 cents wasn’t it? That’s what foiled my nefarious plans isn’t it?

    I need to ask again but with 2.00 instead ... or 5.00 if at a park. I herby demand forgetfulness!

  2. Top | #792
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    What word (then) should I use when I want say a person has the (older?) other version of “access” I first described that doesn’t have affordability as a necessary condition for access?
    Should be on morality or politics.

    Wages and prices vary in accordance with supply and demand on general products and services.

    In the free market system you get what you can afford.

    The ongoing debate over here if access to health care should be based on ability to pay. That is a moral and political question.

    All children are required to have access to primary education. Public education is primarily financed by property taxes. Access is not dependent on ability to pay.

    Accessibility depends on the product and service within the system.

  3. Top | #793
    Mazzie Daius fromderinside's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by fast View Post
    I herby demand forgetfulness!
    Forget that!

  4. Top | #794
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    From reading a few books on WW2 and Hitler's strategy, I was surprised to read that his initial plan was NOT to conquer Europe etc. His initial plan was to take back what Germany had given up after WW1. He only decided to try conquer Europe after he saw just how quickly and easily he managed to take Germany's lands back, with minimal resistance.

  5. Top | #795
    Contributor skepticalbip's Avatar
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    That seems like an odd conclusion to me. As I understand in the book Hitler wrote, Mein Kampf, he outlined his goals and philosophy. It had three major themes; the superiority of the Aryan race, his plan for Aryan world rule, and the Jews as the cause of the world's problems.

  6. Top | #796
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    Quote Originally Posted by Jolly_Penguin View Post
    From reading a few books on WW2 and Hitler's strategy, I was surprised to read that his initial plan was NOT to conquer Europe etc. His initial plan was to take back what Germany had given up after WW1. He only decided to try conquer Europe after he saw just how quickly and easily he managed to take Germany's lands back, with minimal resistance.
    In addition to what @skepticalbip said, this doesn't tie well with the chronology of the buildup to WW2 at all. The first territorial gains Hitler made were Austria and Sudetenland - neither of which had been part of Germany before WW1, or indeed ever since Germany in its modern sense existed (today's Czech Republic and Austria except the easternmost state Burgenland where part of the Holy Roman Empire, but that had been pretty much a loose association of de facto independent states for centuries and ceased to exist in 1806 altogether, more than a hundred years before WWI. And if anything, it would make Germany part of Austria and not the other way round since it had been headed by the Austrian kings throughout the modern era). Even the de facto annexation of the rest of the Czech Republic as the Protectorate_of_Bohemia_and_Moravia came half a year before the attack on Poland - the first that can be vaguely construed as trying to take back territories, as Poland had taken over West Prussia and parts of Upper Silesia after WW1.

    You seem to have been reading some seriously revisionist literature.

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